Crack SSC MTS with Super Coaching Study Plan
Study Plan with special focus on English and GA
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Crack SSC MTS with Super Coaching Study Plan
Study Plan with special focus on English and GA
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Your Total Savings ₹1724The purpose of practicing these SSC MTS most important questions is to have a clear grasp over all the general subjects. Although, you must practice all questions with equal importance, practicing SSC MTS important GK questions must be on a higher priority. It’s because SSC will prefer those candidates with higher marks in General Awareness in tie-breaking cases. All the SSC MTS important questions PDF are prepared as per the level of NCERT or 12th standard questions asked. So, without further ado, let’s check out the SSC MTS important questions in PDF for each section below.
We have covered all SSC MTS MCQs in both English and Hindi for aspirants belonging to bilingual mediums. First, let’s check out the SSC MTS Important Questions PDF in English for Reasoning, Quant, General Awareness, and English in separate sections below.
A total of 20 questions will be asked from the SSC MTS Maths Syllabus in Session-I of the written test. NCERT-level 12th standard questions will be attempted by aspirants from topics like Simplification, Number System, Algebra, Mensuration, Geometry, Trigonometry, etc. Now download the SSC MTS important questions PDF for Maths below.
Que. 1
A man travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He travelled partly on foot at 4 km/hr. and partly on bicycle at 9 km/hr. What is the distance travelled on foot ?
1) 12km
2) 14km
3) 16km
4) 18km
Correct Option - 3
Que. 2
The length of one of the diagonals of a rhombus is 48 cm. If the side of the rhombus is 26 cm, then what is the area of the rhombus?
1) 420 cm2
2) 360 cm2
3) 480 cm2
4) 540 cm2
Correct Option - 3
Que. 3
How many numbers between 300 and 1000 are divisible by 7?
1) 101
2) 301
3) 994
4) 100
Correct Option - 4
Que. 4
If after two years a sum becomes Rs. 4000 and after four years it becomes Rs. 6000 at the same rate of compound interest (compounded annually), then what is the sum?
1) Rs. 2866.66
2) Rs. 2666.66
3) Rs. 2777.77
4) Rs. 2888.88
Correct Option - 2
Que. 5
If an article marked at Rs.1200 is sold after two successive discounts of 30% and 40%, then what is the selling price of the given article?
1) Rs. 514
2) Rs. 604
3) Rs. 504
4) Rs. 614
Correct Option - 3
Que. 6
Two numbers are 25% and 15% less than the third number respectively. First number is what percent less than the second number?
1) 11.76
2) 13.5
3) 17.8
4) 20.4
Correct Option - 1
Que. 7
Average of 10 consecutive even numbers is 11. Which number is the smallest of the 10 numbers?
1) 4
2) 6
3) 8
4) 2
Correct Option - 4
Que. 8
Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
Productions of different cereals (in million tonnes) |
|||||||
Year |
Rice |
Wheat |
Barley |
Others |
|||
2016 |
6800 |
2700 |
2500 |
4500 |
|||
2017 |
8000 |
4200 |
4400 |
3000 |
|||
2018 |
6800 |
3500 |
5200 |
4600 |
|||
2019 |
7200 |
4000 |
5800 |
5000 |
|||
2020 |
8200 |
5600 |
6100 |
6900 |
Which of the cereals shows continuous increase in its production over the years?
1) Barley
2) Others
3) Wheat
4) Rice
Correct Option - 1
Que. 9
A train running at a speed of 90 km/h passes an electric pole in 15 seconds. Find the time taken by it (in seconds) to cross a bridge of length 800 m.
1) 51
2) 47
3) 45
4) 48
Correct Option - 2
Que. 10
A circle is cut out from a rectangle of dimensions 20 cm and 14 cm. Find the ratio of the area of the circle to the remaining area of the rectangle.
1) 11 : 20
2) 9 : 11
3) 20 : 11
4) 11 : 9
Correct Option - 4
Que. 11
Find the Median of a data if Mean and Mode are 8 and 5 respectively.
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
Correct Option - 3
Que. 12
What is the average of the sixty terms given below?
cos2x, cos22x, cos23x, _____, cos230x, sin2x, sin22x, sin23x, _____, sin230x.
1) cos2x
2) 0.5
3) 1
4) cos2x sin2x
Correct Option - 2
Que. 13
If the cost of 5 bananas and 4 apples is equal to the cost of 3 bananas and 7 apples, then the ratio of the prices of a banana and an apple will be:
1) 1 ∶ 4
2) 3 ∶ 2
3) 4 ∶ 3
4) 3 ∶ 5
Correct Option - 2
Que. 14
How many multiples of 3 are there from 1 to 100 which are not multiples of 2?
1) 17
2) 21
3) 34
4) 22
Correct Option - 1
Que. 15
The diagonals of a rhombus are 32 cm and 60 cm. What is the perimeter of the rhombus?
1) 68
2) 132
3) 136
4) 236
Correct Option - 3
As per the official SSC MTS Reasoning Syllabus, a total of 20 questions for 60 marks will be asked in Session-I of the written test. Let’s check out the SSC MTS most important questions for Reasoning that can be repeated in this year’s exam below.
Que. 1
Select the correct option that shows the order of the given words in the order in which they appear in the English dictionary.
1) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
2) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
3) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
4) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
Correct Option - 3
Que. 2
In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
ELEVEN : DNDXDP : : TWELVE : ?
1) SYDNEY
2) SYDNUY
3) SYDNUG
4) SYDNUH
Correct Option - 3
Que. 3
Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
(Left) 2 @ 1 ϕ $ λ £ 5 3 & 9 # * 2 @ 6 7 & % 3 £ 2 & 1 5 (Right)
How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a number?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 1
Correct Option - 2
Que. 4
J is the father of R. C is the wife of L. P Is the brother of R and L both. K is the mother in law of C. If D is the only son of L, then which of the following statements is correct?
1) K is the mother of R
2) R is the daughter of J
3) R is the aunt of D
4) C is the sister of R
Correct Option - 1
Que. 5
Select the alternative that does not have a similar relationship as the given pair.
Forward : Backward
1) Hope : Despair
2) Love : Hate
3) Anger : Wrath
4) Light : Dark
Correct Option - 3
Que. 6
Adi remembers his interview is after 23rd September. While his father remembers his interview is before 25th September. On which date of September is his interview?
1) 23
2) 25
3) 24
4) 26
Correct Option - 3
Que. 7
In a certain language MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code?
1) CPOCBZ
2) CPNCBZ
3) CPNCBX
4) CQOCBZ
Correct Option - 2
Que. 8
A man starts from a point and walks 15 m towards the North. He then turns right and walks 5 m. He then turns left and walks for 6 m. In which direction is he facing now?
1) North
2) South
3) East
4) West
Correct Option - 1
Que. 9
Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
16 |
35 |
9 |
18 |
33 |
8 |
34 |
? |
5 |
1) 34
2) 33
3) 32
4) 35
Correct Option - 3
Que. 10
A, B, C, D and E are five friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is the tallest. D is shorter than B and taller than A. Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him/her?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Correct Option - 4
Que. 11
If '+' means '-' , '×' means '÷' , '÷' means '+' and '-' means '×', then which of the following will be the value of the expression 252 × 9 - 5 + 32 ÷ 92?
1) 168
2) 95
3) 192
4) 200
Correct Option - 4
Que. 12
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a line. E is between D and F. A is second to the right of F. C is at the extreme right. Who is sitting at second place to the left of C?
1) D
2) B
3) F
4) A
Correct Option - 2
Que. 13
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
JG, FC,BY, XU, ?
1) TR
2) VQ
3) VR
4) TQ
Correct Option - 4
Que. 14
Select the number triad that is analogous to the given triads.
(64, 8, 65), (125, 27, 89)
1) (100, 23, 90)
2) (216, 1, 81)
3) (49, 36, 25)
4) (83, 24, 95)
Correct Option - 4
Que. 15
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
III. Some C are B.
Conclusions:
III. All C are B.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow.
2) Both conclusions I and III follow
3) Only conclusion III follows.
4) Only conclusion II follows.
Correct Option - 1
The General Awareness section in Session-II is one of the most important scoring sections in the exam. Around 75 questions from SSC MTS General Awareness Syllabus topics like Current Affairs & Static GK will be asked. Let’s check out the SSC MTS important GK questions below.
Que. 1
_______ was the capital of the Maurya Empire.
1) Magadh
2) Pataliputra
3) Nalanda
4) Takshshila
Correct Option - 2
Que. 2
Virupaksha Temple is located in ______.
1) Chidambaram
2) Kanyakumari
3) Hampi
4) Mamallapuram
Correct Option - 3
Que. 3
Which is the highest gallantry award during the war time in India?
1) Ashoka Chakra
2) Param Vir Chakra
3) Mahavir Chakra
4) Bharat Ratna
Correct Option - 2
Que. 4
Who is the author of the book 'Why I am an Atheist'?
1) Bhagat Singh
2) BR Ambedkar
3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
4) Jyotiba Phule
Correct Option - 1
Que. 5
Which among the following is the largest Asia-Pacific military exercise held each year?
1) Red Flag
2) Cobra Gold
3) Indradhanush
4) Simbex
Correct Option - 2
Que. 6
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
1) Carbon monoxide
2) Smog
3) Carbon dioxide
4) Fly Ash
Correct Option - 2
Que. 7
Which of the following features was borrowed from the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) in Indian Constitution?
1) Five year Plan
2) Concurrent list
3) Fundamental Rights
4) Preamble
Correct Option - 1
Que. 8
The gymnast Dipa Karmakar belongs to the state of________.
1) Maharashtra
2) Haryana
3) Manipur
4) Tripura
Correct Option - 4
Que. 9
In which of the following states is Bishnupur, famous for terracotta temples, located?
1) Telangana
2) Gujarat
3) West Bengal
4) Meghalaya
Correct Option - 3
Que. 10
Which of the following is the windiest planet in the solar system?
1) Neptune
2) Uranus
3) Saturn
4) Mars
Correct Option - 1
Que. 11
Which of the following statements about forests in INCORRECT?
1) In a forest, trees form the uppermost layer of vegetation.
2) Forests protect the soil from erosion.
3) In a forest, shrubs form the lowest layer of vegetation.
4) Forests influence climate, water cycle and air quality.
Correct Option - 3
Que. 12
Which among the following is NOT a type of mountain?
1) Fold Mountain
2) Block Mountain
3) Hidden Mountain
4) Volcanic Mountain
Correct Option - 3
Que. 13
Which of the following Monument-Location pair is correct?
1) Taj Mahal - Meerut
2) Red Fort - Jaipur
3) Golconda Fort - Hyderabad
4) Alai Darwaja - Thanjavur
Correct Option - 3
Que. 14
Who was the President of Congress during the Belgaum Summit of Congress in 1924?
1) K.L. Nehru
2) M.K. Gandhi
3) Charu Majumdar
4) J.L. Nehru
Correct Option - 2
Que. 15
Who among the following was the founder of Prarthana Samaj?
1) Jyotiba Phue
2) MG Ranade
3) Atmaram Pandurang
4) RC Bhandarkar
Correct Option - 3
For SSC MTS English preparation, you will have to be ready with basic Grammar topics and vocabulary fundamentals. A total of 75 questions will be asked in the SSC MTS English section. You can download SSC MTS most important questions for English in the PDF below.
Que. 1
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given question:
If an accident results from the violation of (1)______ regulations, the driver could very well find himself in court charged with dangerous driving. Usual punishments include a fine, a ban on driving for a specified time and may even a prison sentence. Sometimes, the court may even (2)______ to pay out compensation if death occurs as a result of the accident.
One common misconception held by motorists is that when the light turns amber, they should speed up (3)______ and clear the junction before the light turns red. But in fact, the amber light (4)______ that the motorist should (5)______ down to stop.
1 (a) Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
1) fast
2) jump
3) slide
4) slow
Correct Option - 4
1 (b) Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4)
1) indicates
2) nullifies
3) rectifies
4) syndicate
Correct Option - 1
1 (c) Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3)
1) horrifically
2) excessively
3) beautifully
4) lovely
Correct Option - 2
1 (d) Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2)
1) beg
2) request
3) order
4) fight
Correct Option - 3
1 (e) Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1)
1) traffic
2) maffick
3) graphic
4) horrific
Correct Option - 1
Que. 2
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Alisa is an utterly lazy girl, and she works very ______.
1) weirdly
2) weakly
3) thoroughly
4) sluggishly
Correct Option - 4
Que. 3
Choose the correct alternative which will improve the part of the sentence given in quotes.
The conference "will been a" celebration of women's achievements.
1) Will be an
2) Would be an
3) Will be a
4) No improvement
Correct Option - 3
Que. 4
Select the segment of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’.
If I was the president of my country, I would do everything I could to help the people.
1) I could to help the people
2) I would do everything
3) If I was the president of my country
4) No error
Correct Option - 3
Que. 5
Select the correct direct narration of the given sentence.
Sonu told me that he had been watching the bullfight for an hour.
1) Sonu say to me, “I had been watching the bullfight for an hour”.
2) Sonu said to me, “I has been watching the bullfight for an hour”.
3) Sonu said to me, “I have been watching the bullfight for an hour”.
4) Sonu asked to me, “I have been watching the bullfight for an hour”.
Correct Option - 3
Que. 6
There is an underlined segment in the given sentence. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the segment. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.
He used to visit us every week, but he is rarely coming now.
1) rarely came
2) rarely comes
3) has rarely come
4) No substitution required
Correct Option - 2
Que. 7
Directions: Choose the option that best transforms the sentence into its Direct / Indirect form:
‘What country do you come from?’ said the police officer.
1) The police officer asked me from what country I came from.
2) The police officer asked what country I came from.
3) The police officer wanted to know what country I am coming from.
4) The police officer asked me what country did I came from.
Correct Option - 2
Que. 8
Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’.
My purpose is /to described experiments /in the science /of Satyagraha.
1) My purpose is
2) to described experiments
3) in the science
4) of Satyagraha.
Correct Option - 2
Que. 9
Direction: Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
A supplement or appendix to a written document.
1) Extension
2) Annexure
3) Amputate
4) Subduction
Correct Option - 2
Que. 10
Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
1) Secratariat
2) Tongue
3) Heartbeat
4) Performance
Correct Option - 1
Que. 11
Out of the options given in the following questions, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.
Absolve
1) Bless
2) Repent
3) Melt
4) Blame
Correct Option - 4
Que. 12
Fill up the blank with an appropriate word:
Gaikwad had recorded a _____ of low scores in the five T20Is he had played in his career.
1) event
2) cluster
3) parody
4) string
Correct Option - 4
Que. 13
Synonym of the word "Awkward" is _____.
1) Dexterous
2) Urbane
3) Blundering
4) Convenient
Correct Option - 3
Que. 14
Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Cut a sorry figure
1) To render an apology
2) To make a sculpture
3) To create a poor impression
4) To break a record
Correct Option - 3
Que. 15
Direction: Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your answer accordingly.
Japan focuses on building infrastructure which is earthquake resilient."
1) Strong
2) Pliable
3) Vulnerable
4) Adaptable
Correct Option - 3
Now that you have downloaded all the SSC MTS Important Questions PDF in English, the list doesn’t end there. For the thousands of Hindi medium aspirants who apply every year, we have also covered the SSC MTS most important questions for each section in Hindi below.
Now download and practice SSC MTS important questions for Numerical Ability in Hindi below.
Que. 1
एक व्यक्ति ने 9 घंटे में 61 किमी की दूरी तय की। उसने कुछ यात्रा पैदल 4 किमी/घंटा चाल से की और कुछ यात्रा साइकिल से 9 किमी/घंटा की गति से की। पैदल तय की दूरी कितनी है?
1) 12 किमी
2) 14 किमी
3) 16 किमी
4) 18 किमी
Correct Option - 3
Que. 2
एक समचतुर्भुज के विकर्णों में से किसी एक की लम्बाई 48 सेमी है। यदि समचतुर्भुज की भुजा 26 सेमी है, तो समचतुर्भुज का क्षेत्रफल क्या है?
1) 420 सेमी2
2) 360 सेमी2
3) 480 सेमी2
4) 540 सेमी2
Correct Option - 3
Que. 3
300 और 1000 के बीच कुल कितनी संख्याएँ 7 से विभाज्य हैं?
1) 101
2) 301
3) 994
4) 100
Correct Option - 4
Que. 4
यदि कोई राशि दो वर्ष के बाद 4000 रु. हो जाती है और उसी चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज (वार्षिक रूप से समायोजित) की दर से चार वर्ष के बाद 6000 रु. हो जाती है, तो वह राशि क्या है?
1) 2866.66 रुपए
2) 2666.66 रुपए
3) 2777.77 रुपए
4) 2888.88 रुपए
Correct Option - 2
Que. 5
यदि 1200 रुपये के अंकित मूल्य की वस्तु को 30% और 40% की दो क्रमिक छूटों के बाद बेचा जाता है, तो दी गई वस्तु का विक्रय मूल्य कितना है?
1) 514 रुपये
2) 604 रुपये
3) 504 रुपये
4) 614 रुपये
Correct Option - 3
Que. 6
दो संख्याएँ एक तीसरी संख्या से क्रमशः 25% और 15% कम हैं। पहली संख्या दूसरी संख्या से कितने प्रतिशत कम है?
1) 11.76
2) 13.5
3) 17.8
4) 20.4
Correct Option - 1
Que. 7
10 क्रमागत सम संख्याओं का औसत 11 है। 10 संख्याओं में सबसे छोटी संख्या कौन सी है?
1) 4
2) 6
3) 8
4) 2
Correct Option - 4
Que. 8
दी गई तालिका का अध्ययन करें और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्न का उत्तर दें।
विभिन्न अनाजों का उत्पादन (मिलियन टन में) |
||||
वर्ष |
चावल |
गेहूँ |
जौ |
अन्य |
2016 |
6800 |
2700 |
2500 |
4500 |
2017 |
8000 |
4200 |
4400 |
3000 |
2018 |
6800 |
3500 |
5200 |
4600 |
2019 |
7200 |
4000 |
5800 |
5000 |
2020 |
8200 |
5600 |
6100 |
6900 |
कौन सा अनाज वर्षों से अपने उत्पादन में निरंतर वृद्धि दर्शाता है?
1) जौ
2) अन्य
3) गेहूँ
4) चावल
Correct Option - 1
Que. 9
90 किमी/घंटा की गति से दौड़ रही एक ट्रेन एक बिजली के खंबे को 15 सेकंड में पार करती है। 800 मीटर लंबे पुल को पार करने में इसके द्वारा लिया गया समय (सेकंड में) ज्ञात कीजिए।
1) 51
2) 47
3) 45
4) 48
Correct Option - 2
Que. 10
20 सेमी और 14 सेमी विमाओं वाले एक आयत में से एक वृत्त काटा जाता है। वृत्त के क्षेत्रफल तथा आयत के शेष क्षेत्रफल का अनुपात ज्ञात कीजिए।
1) 11 : 20
2) 9 : 11
3) 20 : 11
4) 11 : 9
Correct Option - 4
Check out the SSC MTS most important questions for Reasoning in Hindi language below.
Que. 1
उस सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए, जो दिए गए शब्दों के उस क्रम को दर्शाता हैं, जिस क्रम में ये अंग्रेजी शब्दकोश में मौजूद होते हैं।
1) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
2) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
3) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
4) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
Correct Option - 3
Que. 2
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए विकल्पों में से संबंधित अक्षरों को चुनिए।
ELEVEN : DNDXDP : : TWELVE : ?
1) SYDNEY
2) SYDNUY
3) SYDNUG
4) SYDNUH
Correct Option - 3
Que. 3
दी गई संख्या, प्रतीक शृंखला का संदर्भ लीजिए और दिए गए प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए।
(बायाँ) 2 @ 1 ϕ $ λ £ 5 3 & 9 # * 2 @ 6 7 & % 3 £ 2 & 1 5 (दायाँ)
ऐसी कितनी संख्याएँ हैं, जिनमें से प्रत्येक के ठीक पहले एक प्रतीक है और ठीक बाद में एक संख्या है?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 1
Correct Option - 2
Que. 4
J, R का पिता है। C, L की पत्नी है। P, R और L दोनों का भाई है। K, C की सास है। यदि D, L का एकमात्र पुत्र है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्य है?
1) K, R की माता है
2) R, J की पुत्री है
3) R, D की आंटी है
4) C, R की बहन है
Correct Option - 1
Que. 5
उस विकल्प को चुनें जिसका दिए हुए युग्म जैसा संबंध नहीं है।
आगे : पीछे
1) भरोसा : निराशा
2) प्यार : नफरत
3) गुस्सा : रोष
4) उजाला : अँधेरा
Correct Option - 3
Que. 6
आदी को याद है कि उसका साक्षात्कार 23 सितंबर के बाद है। जबकि उनके पिता को याद है कि आदी का साक्षात्कार 25 सितंबर से पहले है। सितंबर की किस तारीख को आदी का साक्षात्कार है?
1) 23
2) 25
3) 24
4) 26
Correct Option - 3
Que. 7
एक निश्चित भाषा में MADRAS का कूट NBESBT है, उस कूट में BOMBAY को कैसे कूटबद्ध करेंगे?
1) CPOCBZ
2) CPNCBZ
3) CPNCBX
4) CQOCBZ
Correct Option - 2
Que. 8
एक आदमी एक बिंदु से शुरू करता है और 15 मीटर उत्तर की ओर चलता है। वह फिर दाएं मुड़ता है और 5 मीटर चलता है। वह फिर बाएं मुड़ता है और 6 मीटर तक चलता है। अब वह किस दिशा के सम्मुख है?
1) उत्तर
2) दक्षिण
3) पूर्व
4) पश्चिम
Correct Option - 1
Que. 9
दिए गए पैटर्न का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन कीजिए और उस संख्या का चयन कीजिए जो उसमें से प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित कर सकती है।
16 |
35 |
9 |
18 |
33 |
8 |
34 |
? |
5 |
1) 34
2) 33
3) 32
4) 35
Correct Option - 3
Que. 10
यदि '+' का अर्थ '-' , '×' का अर्थ '÷' , '÷' का अर्थ '+' और '-' का अर्थ '×' है, तो निम्नलिखित समीकरण का मान कोन सा होगा 252 × 9 - 5 + 32 ÷ 92?
1) 168
2) 95
3) 192
4) 200
Correct Option - 4
In SSC MTS GK syllabus, Current Affairs of all Hindi regions and contexts will be asked. Let’s check out the SSC MTS important GK questions in Hindi language below.
Que. 1
_______ मौर्य साम्राज्य की राजधानी थी।
1) मगध
2) पाटलिपुत्र
3) नालंदा
4) तक्षशिला
Correct Option - 2
Que. 2
विरुपाक्ष मंदिर ______ में स्थित है।
1) चिदंबरम
2) कन्याकुमारी
3) हम्पी
4) मामल्लपुरम
Correct Option - 3
Que. 3
निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत में युद्ध के समय का सर्वोच्च वीरता पुरस्कार है?
1) अशोक चक्र
2) परमवीर चक्र
3) महावीर चक्र
4) भारत रत्न
Correct Option - 2
Que. 4
"'व्हाई आई एम एथिस्ट" पुस्तक के लेखक कौन हैं?
1) भगत सिंह
2) बी.आर. अम्बेडकर
3) राजा राम मोहन राय
4) ज्योतिबा फुले
Correct Option - 1
Que. 5
प्रत्येक वर्ष इनमें से कौन सा सबसे बड़ा एशिया-प्रशांत सैन्य अभ्यास आयोजित किया जाता है?
1) लाल झंडा
2) कोबरा गोल्ड
3) इन्द्रधनुष
4) सिंबेक्स
Correct Option - 2
Que. 6
निम्न में से कौनसा एक द्वितीयक प्रदूषक है?
1) कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड
2) धुंध
3) कार्बन डाआक्साइड
4) फ्लाई ऐश
Correct Option - 2
Que. 7
निम्नलिखित में से किस महत्वपूर्ण लेख को भारतीय संविधान में सोवियत समाजवादी गणराज्य संघ (USSR) से लिया गया था?
1) पंचवर्षीय योजना
2) समवर्ती सूची
3) मौलिक अधिकार
4) प्रस्तावना
Correct Option - 1
Que. 8
जिम्नास्ट दीपा कर्माकर _________ राज्य से संबंधित हैं।
1) महाराष्ट्र
2) हरियाणा
3) मणिपुर
4) त्रिपुरा
Correct Option - 4
Que. 9
टेराकोटा मंदिरों के लिए प्रसिद्ध बिष्णुपुर निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में स्थित है?
1) तेलंगाना
2) गुजरात
3) पश्चिम बंगाल
4) मेघालय
Correct Option - 3
Que. 10
निम्नलिखित में से सौरमंडल का वातमय ग्रह कौन सा है?
1) वरुण
2) अरुण
3) शनि
4) मंगल
Correct Option - 1
For all the aspirants aiming to crack the upcoming SSC MTS exam, it is essential to solve topic-wise questions, including important SSC MTS questions from the previous years. Some of the essential benefits for practicing these SSC MTS most important questions are as follows -
Attempt SSC MTS Mock Tests now to build a solid grasp over all important questions of the exam!
As per the latest official notification, the SSC MTS 2023 exam pattern has been revised from previous year. Let’s check it in detail below.
Papers |
Subjects |
No. of questions |
Total marks |
Time duration |
Session I |
Numerical Ability and Mathematical Ability |
20 |
60 |
45 mins (60 mins for scribe candidates |
Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving |
20 |
60 |
||
Session II |
General Awareness |
25 |
75 |
45 mins (60 mins for scribe candidates |
English Language and Comprehension |
25 |
75 |
Also go through the SSC MTS Exam Analysis in detail here!
We hope that this article could help you access all the SSC MTS Important Questions PDF in English and Hindi for your ultimate preparation. For more such detailed exam resources, study materials, and live preparation for SSC and other PSU exams, download the Testbook App now and get exam-ready in a few clicks.
Last updated: Feb 13, 2023
SSC MTS 2022 Last Date Extended! Candidates can now apply till 24th Feb 2023 & this is also the closing day for eligibility consideration. The application fee payment can be done online & offline by 26th and 27th Feb 2023 respectively. Applications can be corrected from 2nd March to 3rd March 2023. SSC MTS 2021 Paper II Results & Cut-Off has been released on 13th Feb 2023. Selected candidates will be eligible for the DV Round. SSC MTS 2021 Final vacancies have been released. SSC MTS 2022 vacancies increased to 11,994. The SSC MTS application process for 2023 started on 18th January 2023 and the last date to apply is 17th February 2023. The exam will be held in the month of April 2023. Selection of the candidates for the post of SSC MTS is based on Computer Based Examination. As per the new notification, the SSC MTS Exam Pattern has been changed by the commission. Now the exam will be held for 270 marks instead of 100 marks.